Toronto Math Forum
APM346-2012 => APM346 Math => Misc Math => Topic started by: Tse Chiang Chen on November 26, 2012, 06:29:28 PM
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Hi Professor and fellow classmates,
in the mean value theorem, it says that the first term in the right-hand expression (7) is 0, but does not state that the Laplacian is 0. Is the Laplacian assumed to be zero in the notes? And I assume that is how I will prove 2a) of HA8 for a non-zero Laplacian.
Thanks in advance!
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Hi Professor and fellow classmates,
in the mean value theorem, it says that the first term in the right-hand expression (7) is 0, but does not state that the Laplacian is 0. Is the Laplacian assumed to be zero in the notes?
Yes--in this place, I put it now explicitly.
And I assume that is how I will prove 2a) of HA8 for a non-zero Laplacian.
Thanks in advance!
It has some sign, so instead of equalities you get inequalities.