In the proof it says $$\int\left(e^{-ikx}\right)'f(x)dx=ik\hat{f}(k)$$

However, $\left(e^{-ikx}\right)'=-ike^{-ikx}$, so shouldn't it be $-ik\hat{f}(k)$? So is it the rule that is wrong or is it the proof that is wrong? Recall that the rule is $$g(x)=f'(x)\Rightarrow \hat{g}(k)=ik\hat{f}(k)$$

Should it be instead $$\hat{g}(k)=-ik\hat{f}(k)$$

Which makes sense since in quantum mechanics $\hat{p}=-i\hbar\frac{d}{dx}$