MAT334-2018F > Quiz-7
Q7 TUT 5101
Jeffery Mcbride:
You're right, $\displaystyle f( iy)$ is totally irrelevant here. My mistake. Do you mean the fact that f([-R, R]) lies completely in the upper half plane. Because
$\displaystyle Re( f( x)) \ =\ x^{4} \ +\ x\ -\ 2$
$\displaystyle Im( f( x)) \ =\ 3x^{2} \ +\ 1$
$\displaystyle Im( f( x)) \ >\ 0$
When $\displaystyle z\ \rightarrow \ \pm \infty $, Re(f(z)) $\displaystyle \rightarrow \ \infty $ and Im(f(z)) $\displaystyle \rightarrow \ \infty \ $and the endpoints of $\displaystyle f([ -R,\ R]) \ $lie in the first quadrant for R really big. So the change in argument is going to be 0.
This can be coupled with what I said about the curve.
$\displaystyle f\left( Re^{it}\right)$ = $\displaystyle e^{4it} \ $from [0, $\displaystyle \pi $] because the 4 term dominates. So the change in argument is 4$\displaystyle \pi $.
So in total we get 2 zeros as the total change in argument is 4$\displaystyle \pi $.
Victor Ivrii:
Yes, $f(x)$ belongs to upper half-plane for $x\in (-\infty,\infty)$. But why?
Jeffery Mcbride:
Because
$\displaystyle Re( f( x)) \ =\ x^{4} \ +\ x\ -\ 2$
$\displaystyle Im( f( x)) \ =\ 3x^{2} \ +\ 1$
$\displaystyle Im( f( x)) \ >\ 0$
(Added this to my previous answer)
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