This is my attempt at the question.
Assume f's Laurent series is not unique.
Then, we have
$$f(z) = \sum a_{n} (z-z_{0})^n$$
$$f(z) = \sum b_{n} (z-z_{0})^n$$
Subtract the two equations and get
$$0 = \sum (a_{n}-b_{n}) (z-z_{0})^n$$
So, we must have
$$a_{n} = b_{n}$$ and f's Laurent series must be unique.