Toronto Math Forum

APM346-2012 => APM346 Math => Misc Math => Topic started by: Tse Chiang Chen on November 26, 2012, 06:29:28 PM

Title: Lec 26 MVT
Post by: Tse Chiang Chen on November 26, 2012, 06:29:28 PM
Hi Professor and fellow classmates,
in the mean value theorem, it says that the first term in the right-hand expression (7) is 0, but does not state that the Laplacian is 0. Is the Laplacian assumed to be zero in the notes? And I assume that is how I will prove 2a) of HA8 for a non-zero Laplacian.
Thanks in advance!
Title: Re: Lec 26 MVT
Post by: Victor Ivrii on November 27, 2012, 03:43:54 AM
Hi Professor and fellow classmates,
in the mean value theorem, it says that the first term in the right-hand expression (7) is 0, but does not state that the Laplacian is 0. Is the Laplacian assumed to be zero in the notes?
Quote
Yes--in this place, I put it now explicitly.

Quote
And I assume that is how I will prove 2a) of HA8 for a non-zero Laplacian.
Thanks in advance!
It has some sign, so instead of equalities you get inequalities.