Toronto Math Forum
APM3462022S => APM346Lectures & Home Assignments => Chapter 2 => Topic started by: Yifei Hu on February 19, 2022, 09:16:55 PM

In this problem, $1 < t < \infty$, when applying D' Alembert's formula, why we integrate from 0 to t instead of from 1 to t?
Thanks in advance!

We integrate from $t=0$ because for $t=0$ initial conditions are done. $1<t $ is a domain where $f(x,t)$ is defined