# Toronto Math Forum

## MAT334-2018F => MAT334--Lectures & Home Assignments => Topic started by: Ende Jin on December 06, 2018, 12:15:20 PM

Title: Sample Final, Q4, (c)
Post by: Ende Jin on December 06, 2018, 12:15:20 PM
I just want to ask, if that is the answer. Because the author just took off the absolute value without reason ($z \in \mathbb{C}$ right?) and when dealing with $arg(f'(z))$ I don't understand why the simplification is necessary. Why not just write $arg(f'(z)) = arg(\frac{-24}{(1+5z)^2})$ Why it has to move $\pi$ out?