Toronto Math Forum
APM3462012 => APM346 Math => Misc Math => Topic started by: Tse Chiang Chen on November 26, 2012, 06:29:28 PM

Hi Professor and fellow classmates,
in the mean value theorem, it says that the first term in the righthand expression (7) is 0, but does not state that the Laplacian is 0. Is the Laplacian assumed to be zero in the notes? And I assume that is how I will prove 2a) of HA8 for a nonzero Laplacian.
Thanks in advance!

Hi Professor and fellow classmates,
in the mean value theorem, it says that the first term in the righthand expression (7) is 0, but does not state that the Laplacian is 0. Is the Laplacian assumed to be zero in the notes?
Yesin this place, I put it now explicitly.
And I assume that is how I will prove 2a) of HA8 for a nonzero Laplacian.
Thanks in advance!
It has some sign, so instead of equalities you get inequalities.