In text book 2.4, we had one line in the derivation: $\tilde{u_{\xi}}=-\frac{1}{4c^2} \int^\xi f(\xi,\eta')d\eta'=-\frac{1}{4c^2} \int_\xi^\eta\tilde f(\xi,\eta')d\eta' + \phi'(\xi)$.

Why can we replace the definite integral with the indefinite integral? Why we choose $\xi$ as lower limit and $\eta$ as upper limit?