Toronto Math Forum
MAT3342018F => MAT334Lectures & Home Assignments => Topic started by: hanyu Qi on December 02, 2018, 01:36:30 PM

Hello everyone, I am wondering why the range of $\theta$ is $[0,\pi]$ instead of $[\pi,0]$.
Then the integral estimation would be $ \int_{\gamma_{\epsilon}} f(z) \text{d}z \leq \int_{\pi}^{0} f(z) \text{d}z = \frac{\pi \epsilon}{\sqrt{\epsilon} (1{\epsilon}^2)}$ goes to 0 as $\epsilon$ close to 0+.

Never mind. I think I know why.
In the answer, f(z) is integral over $\gamma_{\epsilon}$. I guess this is why its range is $[0,\pi]$

Because we do not calculatewe estimate it.