5

« **on:** November 27, 2018, 10:54:10 AM »
Let $f(z) = e^2z$ and $g(z) = e^z$.

We have

$|f(z)| = e^2 > e = |g(z)| \text{ when} |z|<1$

So, $f(z) = 0 $ has the same number of zeros as $f(z)=g(z)$. (Q16 in textbook)

$$f(z) = e^2z=0$$

$$z = 0$$

Thus, $f(z)$ has one zero $\implies$ $f(z)=g(z)$ has one zero.

Let's look at the case where z is real. I.e. $z = x$ where $x\in\mathbb{R}$

Then,

Call $h(z) = f(z) - g(z) = e^x - e^2 x$

Note that:

$$h(0) = 1 $$

$$h(1) = e - e^2 <0 $$

By Mean Value Theorem, there exists $x$ where $0 < x < 1$ such that $h(x) = 0$.

I.e. there is a REAL ROOT x where $0<x<1$.

We know that there is only one real root in $\{z:|z|<1\}$ because $|h(\overline{z_0})| = |h(z_0)| =0$ is only true when $z_0$ is real.

Thus, within $|z| <1$ there is only one root, and that root is real.