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Messages - Tse Chiang Chen

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Misc Math / Lec 26 MVT
« on: November 26, 2012, 06:29:28 PM »
Hi Professor and fellow classmates,
in the mean value theorem, it says that the first term in the right-hand expression (7) is 0, but does not state that the Laplacian is 0. Is the Laplacian assumed to be zero in the notes? And I assume that is how I will prove 2a) of HA8 for a non-zero Laplacian.
Thanks in advance!

Misc Math / Re: Mean-value theorem
« on: November 26, 2012, 03:48:43 PM »
Hi Professor (and fellow classmates),
I am wondering the same question as Thomas; specifically, does it mean this? (See attached)

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